"Most certainly I tell you, there are some standing here who will in no way taste of death until they see the Son of Man coming in his Kingdom" (Matthew 16:28). Here is a similar passage: "But when they persecute you in this city, flee into the next, for most certainly I tell you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel until the Son of Man has come. But when they persecute you in this city, flee into the next, for most certainly I tell you, you will not have gone through the cities of Israel until the Son of Man has come" (Matthew 10:23). Both passages speak of the coming of the Son of Man. But what coming do they speak of? Is it in our future or our past? Please prayerfully consider the scriptures and you shall see. |
To understand the context for Matthew 10:23 please read Matthew 9:36-11:1. In 9:38 Jesus instructs the disciples to ask God to send workers into the harvest of souls. Then the entire following chapter is about Jesus sending them. The entire passage is a training session for preaching the kingdom of Heaven. Notice that 11:1 reads, "When Jesus had finished directing his twelve disciples, he departed..." The phrase "finished directing" indicates that the instructions were finished at that point. In 9:36-11:1, Jesus sent the disciples to the cities of Israel (10:5-7) to preach "the kingdom of Heaven" (10:7). It is noteworthy that 10:23, occurs almost exactly in the center of this long passage of instruction for preaching "the kingdom of Heaven". So, the context of Matthew 10:23, "you will not have gone through the cities of Israel until the Son of Man has come", is the preaching of the Kingdom of Heaven. So, the phrase "until the Son of Man has come" has something to do with the "kingdom of Heaven".
So I see 10:23 in that context. I see the coming of Matthew 10:23 as his "coming in his kingdom" which occurred "when he raised him from the dead and made him to sit at his right hand in the heavenly places" (Ephesians 1:20-23, Revelation 3:21). This is the same coming as mentioned in Matthew 16:28 above which reads, "the Son of Man coming in his kingdom". So, I believe that Matthew 10:23 and 16:28 both speak of the same coming... coming in his kingdom.
One of the thieves on the cross said that Jesus would come into his kingdom after Jesus died (Luke 23:42-43). Jesus does not dispute this, but tells the thief that he will be with Jesus in Paradise. This indicates that Jesus had not yet come into his kingdom while he was on the cross. After his death, when he was raised from the dead, Jesus was placed "in the heavenly places... above all rule and authority... not only in this age, but in the age to come" (Ephesians 1:20-21). That sounds like Jesus was made king from now on in the heavenly realm. Jesus was on his Father's throne when the book of Revelation was written (Revelation 3:21). That sounds like he was made a king with the highest authority in Heaven. After his resurrection but before his ascension, Jesus said "All authority has been given to me in heaven and on earth" (Matthew 28:18). That sounds like Jesus is King of kings, in heaven and on earth.
"Coming in his kingdom" at his resurrection fits both Matthew 10:23 and 16:28. His resurrection would reasonably have occurred before the disciples went to every city in Israel. So, coming into his kingdom at the resurrection is consistent with Matthew 10:23. His resurrection occurred before some of the twelve apostles tasted death. It occurred after the death of Judas but before the deaths of the other eleven apostles (Matthew 27:1-8). So, coming into his kingdom at the resurrection is consistent with Matthew 16:28 as well.
His kingdom which was proclaimed in Matthew 10:7 and 16:28 was a spiritual kingdom, being "not of this world" (John 18:36). People were entering the Kingdom of Heaven before the crucifixion (Matthew 11:12, 19:14, Romans 14:17). The passages in Matthew speak of the Kingdom of Heaven while the Romans passage speaks of God's Kingdom. Well, the Kingdom of Heaven is God's Kingdom. Since people were entering the kingdom at that time and since there is no scriptural record of a physical kingdom of God at that time, it was a spiritual rather than a physical kingdom that they entered. This spiritual kingdom was established in the first coming of Jesus, during the rule of Rome, just like the book of Daniel prophesied. Click here to read about the fulfillment of Daniel's 70 weeks.
OTHER POSSIBILITES
I will now present some other possibilities for Matthew 10:23 and 16:28 and the reasons I believe them to be incorrect.
Incarnation
Jesus was obviously present at the time he spoke Matthew 10:23 and 16:28. So, the incarnation doesn't appear to be the coming of the Son of Man mentioned in either passage.
Destruction of Jerusalem
"Has come" in Matthew 10:23 could not refer to the time of the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD, since the disciples could surely have passed through all the cities of Israel in the thirty-seven or so years which passed between the crucifixion of our Lord in 30-33 AD and 70 AD.
Rapture, Resurrection, Tribulation and Millennial Kingdom
"Has come" in Matthew 10:23 could not refer to the time of those events since they have not occurred to the present day and the disciples finished going through the cities of Israel in the first century. "The coming of the Son of Man in his Kingdom" in 16:28 could also not refer to the time of those events since all of the apostles died before they came to pass. The passage stated, "there are some standing here who will in no way taste death until they see the Son of Man coming in his Kingdom
Other Old Testament Prophecies
A fulfillment of Old Testament prophecies regarding "the Son of Man" to take place after Jesus entered Jerusalem his final time can not correlate with Matthew 10:23 or 16:28. This is because Jesus stated that all prophecies about "the Son of Man" would be fulfilled when he entered Jerusalem (Luke 18:31). So, after the crucifixion, no Old Testament prophecies regarding the Son of Man remained unfulfilled.
In Matthew 9:36-11:1 the disciples were proclaiming the kingdom of Heaven. Jesus had come to initiate the kingdom of Heaven which was prophesied to begin during the reign of Rome in Daniel 2:1-45, especially 2:35,40,44; as well as Daniel 7:1-27, especially 7:27. All Old Testament prophecies were fulfilled by 70 AD, with the destruction of Jerusalem, according to Luke 21:22. Click here for more on this. All Old Testament prophecies regarding the Son of Man from those passages in Daniel 2, 7, 9, 12 and any other Old Testament book, were completely fulfilled when Jesus entered Jerusalem according to Luke 18:31.
Here is Luke 18:31...
"He took the twelve aside, and said to them, "Behold, we are going up to Jerusalem, and all the things that are written through the prophets concerning the Son of Man will be completed" (Luke 18:31).
Contrary to much of what has been taught in the last one hundred years concerning alleged unfulfilled Old Testament prophecies, all Old Testament prophecies regarding the "Son of Man" were fulfilled when Jesus entered Jerusalem in 30-33 AD, just like Luke 18:31 above said.
As I wrote above, his kingdom proclaimed in Matthew 10:7 and 16:28 represented a spiritual kingdom, being "not of this world" (John 18:36). People were entering the kingdom of Heaven before the crucifixion (Matthew 11:12, 19:14). Since people were entering the kingdom at that time and since there is no scriptural record of a physical kingdom of God at that time, it was a spiritual rather than a physical kingdom that they entered. This spiritual kingdom was established in the first coming of Jesus, during the rule of Rome, just like the book of Daniel prophesied. Click here to read about the fulfillment of Daniel's 70 weeks.
The above contains my prayerful understanding at the present time. If you believe that my presentation has contradicted any scripture, please let me know. If anyone has a better explanation, please contact me and give me a link to that explanation. If I am incorrect, I want to be corrected.
God Bless,
Jim Phillips